Question
Explain Linkage & Recombination.

Answer

→ The crosses were similar to the dihybrid crosses carried out by Mendel in peas.
→ For example Morgan hybridised yellow-bodied, white-eyed females to brown-bodied, red-eyed males and intercrossed their F1 progeny.
→ He observed that the two genes did not segregate independently of each other and the F2 ratio deviated very significantly from the 9:3:3:1 ratio (expected when the two genes are independent).
→ Morgan and his group knew that the genes were located on the X chromosome and saw quickly that when the two genes in a dihybrid cross were situated on the same chromosome, the proportion of parental gene combinations were much higher than the non-parental type.
→ Morgan attributed this due to the physical association or linkage of the two genes and coined the term linkage to describe this physical association of genes on a chromosome and the term recombination to describe the generation of non-parental gene combinations.
→ Morgan and his group also found that even when genes were grouped on the same chromosome, some genes were very tightly linked (showed very low recombination (Cross A) while others were loosely linked (showed higher recombination) (Cross B)
→ For example he found that the genes white and yellow were very tightly linked and showed only 1.3 percent recombination while white and miniature wing showed 37.2 percent recombination.
→ His student Alfred Sturtevant used the frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the same chromosome as a measure of the distance between genes and 'mapped' their position on the chromosome.
Image

Need a full question paper?

Generate a complete, print-ready paper with questions like this in minutes — across 16+ boards, with answer keys.

Start Generating Free

Similar questions

Highlight five areas where biotechnology has influenced our lives.
Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Transgenic animals can serve as factories that in some cases, may produce large amounts of proteins more efficiently. Transgenic mice have been engineered to express human antibodies by introducing a large segment of human DNA encoding human immunoglobulin genes. In transgenic large animals such as cows or sheep proteins of pharmaceutical value can be produced in large quantities in milk which is later purified. Transgenes can be used to alter many phenotypic properties including growth rate, fat composition, milk production, hair texture, etc.
i. In transgenic animals, i.e. cow and sheep proteins of pharmaceutical value are produced in large quantities in which gland. (1)
ii. Why is mouse the most preferred animal for studies on gene transfer? (1)
iii. Why does the production of transgenic animals take place? (2)
OR
Assertion (A): Transgenic mice have been engineered to express human antibodies. (2)
Reason (R): Large segments of human DNA encoding human immunoglobulin have been transferred to mice.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
How interesingly Gene is amplified by using PCR? Explain with diagram.
Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow:
The following is the illustration of the sequence of ovarian events (A-I) in a humans female.
Image
i. Identify the figure that illustrates ovulation and mention the stage of oogenesis it represents. (1)
ii. Name the ovarian hormone and the pituitary hormone that have caused the above mentioned event. (1)
iii. Explain the changes that occur in the uterus simultaneously in anticipation. (2)
OR
Write the differences between C and H. (2)
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:
A 23 year old Sahil has been diagnosed with an infection of reproductive tract caused by bacteria. He complains about burning sensation during urination, pus-containing discharge and pain around genitalia. This infection has incubation period of 2-5 days but can be cured.
  1. From which disease is Sahil suffering?
  1. Chlamydiasis.
  2. Herpes.
  3. Gonorrhoea.
  4. Syphilis.
  1. Which among the following reproductive tract infections is transmitted by bacteria?
  1. Trichomoniasis.
  2. Chancroid.
  3. Genital warts.
  4. Both (a) and (b).
  1. Which mode of treatment would be useful for Sahil?
  1. Cryosurgery.
  2. Use of Podophyllum preparation.
  3. Use of antibiotic ampicillin.
  4. It cannot be treated.
  1. What technique was used to diagnose Sahil's disease?
  1. Gram staining of discharge and culture.
  2. ELISA Test.
  3. Antibody detection.
  4. Antigen test.
  1. Find the odd one out.
  1. Treponema pallidum.
  2. Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
  3. Haernophilus ducreyi.
  4. Trichomonas vaginalis.
Describe the process of DNA Fingerprinting in detail.
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:

Aditya went to his hometown located in countryside along with his parents during his summer vacations. His grand parents' house is surrounded by farmland from all sides. Lots of crops were growing nearby and Aditya was very excited to visit the crop fields. He seeked permission from his mother to play in farmland along with his friends and then went to play in the fields. On returning back he had running nose, watering eyes and continuous sneezing which was very frequent. TI1e symptoms worsened with time. Based on the above information, answer the following questions.

  1. What could be the possible reason for Aditya's condition?
  1. Allergy
  2. Infection
  3. Malnutrition
  4. Genetic disorder
  1. How can allergy be diagnosed in a person?
  1. Presence of large amount of IgE antibodies in the blood.
  2. Presence of large number of bacteria in the blood.
  3. Presence of bilirubin and bilirubin pigments in the stool.
  4. Presence of sickle shaped RBCs in the blood
  1. The symptoms which Aditya developed on account of being allergic are consequence of?
  1. Inflammation of membrane lining the nose and conjunctiva
  2. Swelling up of tissue surrounding bronchioles of lungs
  3. Dilation of all arteries so that large amount of fluid passes from blood to tissues.
  4. All of these.
  1. Name the type of allergy that Aditya developed.
  1. Asthma
  2. Anaphylaxis
  3. Hay fever
  4. Urticaria
  1. Assertion : Hay fever is the form of allergy due to pollens of grasses and other plants.

Reason : Hay fever symptoms are due to release of histamines and often respond well to treatment with antihistamines.

  1. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
  2. Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
  3. Assertion is true, but reason is false.
  4. Both assertion and reason are false.
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:

During copulation, semen is released by the penis into the vagina. 'The motile sperms swim rapidly, fuse with ovum in the ampullary region, resulting in fertilisation. Haploid nucleus of sperm fuse with that of ovum to form diploid zygote.

  1. In female genital tract, sperms are made capable of fertilising the egg. This phenomenon of sperm activation is called:
  1. Amphimixis.
  2. Cortical reaction.
  3. Capacitation.
  4. Acrosomal reaction.
  1. Select the correct sequence of various physical and chemical events that take place during fertilisation.
  1. Fusion of cortical granules with plasma membrane of secondary oocyte.
  2. Formation of fertilisation cone to receive sperm.
  3. Release of sperm lysin from acrosome.
  4. Mixing up of chromosomes of a sperm and an ovum.
  1. R → Q → P → S
  2. Q → S → R → P
  3. Q → R → S → P
  4. R → P → Q → S
  1. Assertion: Only one sperm can fertilise an ovum.

Reason: The secretion of acrosome help the sperm to enter into cytoplasm of ovum through zona pellucida and plasma membrane.

  1. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
  2. Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
  3. Assertion is true, but reason is false.
  4. Both assertion and reason are false
  1. What is the significance of fertilisation?
  1. It restores haploid number of chromosomes.
  2. It produces offspring genetically identical to parents.
  3. It initiates cleavage.
  4. Both (b) and (c).
  1. Site of fertilisation in humans is:
  1. Endometrium of uterine cavity.
  2. Ampullary isthmic junction of oviduct.
  3. Cervix of uterus.
  4. Infundibulum of fallopian tube.
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:
The DNA, which is transferred from one organism into another by joining it with the vehicle DNA is called passenger or foreign DNA. Generally three types of passenger DNAs are used. These are complementary DNA (cDNA), synthetic DNA (sDNA) and random DNA. Complementary DNA (cDNA) is synthesized on RNA template (usually mRNA) with the help of reverse transcriptase. Synthetic DNA (sDNA) is synthesized on DNA template or without a template. Random DNA are small fragments fanned by breaking a chromosome of an organism in the presence of restriction endonucleases.

  1. Reverse transcriptase enzyme was discovered by:
  1. Temin and Baltimore.
  2. Cohen and Boyer.
  3. Arber and Nathan.
  4. Paul Berg.
  1. During cDNA formation, what would happen if DNA formed by reverse transcriptase is not treated with the alkali?
  1. cDNA will not be digested.
  2. mRNA will not be digested.
  3. Hydrogen bonds will not form between base pairs.
  4. rnRNA will not be formed.
  1. Enzyme that helps in the formation of double stranded cDNA is:
  1. DNA synthetase
  2. Ligase
  3. DNA polymerase
  4. Helicase.
  1. DNA polymerase can be obtained form:
  1. Retrovirus.
  2. Agrobacteriurn.
  3. Tobacco mosaic virus.
  4. Thermus aquaticus.
  1. DNA synthesised without a template is referred to as:
  1. Complementary DNA.
  2. Random DNA.
  3. Synthetic DNA.
  4. Z-DNA..
Give an account of energy flow in an ecosystem.