Question
Explain population attributes.

Answer

→ A population has certain attributes whereas, an individual organism does not.
→ An individual may have births and deaths, but a population has birth rates and death rates.
→ In a population these rates refer to per capita births and deaths. The rates, hence, expressed are change in numbers (increase or decrease) with respect to members of the population
Birth rates : Refer to per capita births. E.g. In a pond, there are 20 lotus plants last year Through reproduction 8 new plants are added. Hence, the current population 28 The birth rate 8/20-0.4 offspring per lotus per year.
Death rates : Refer to per capita deaths.
E.g. 4 individuals in a laboratory population of 40 fruit flies died during a week. Hence, the death rate-4/40-0.1 individuals per fruit fly per week.
→ Sex ratio : A population has a sex ratio.
E.g. 60% of the population is females and 40% males
→ Age pyramid : It is the structure obtained when the age distribution (% individuals of a given age or age group) is plotted for the population.
→ For human population, age pyramids generally show age distribution of males and females in a combined diagram.
Image
Population size or population density (N) : It is the number of individuals of a species per unit area or volume.
→ E.g. population density of Siberian cranes at Bharatpur wetlands in any year is <10. It is millions for Chlamydomonas in a pond.
Growth status Expanding (growing) Representation of age pyramids for human population, population size is also measured in % cover or biomass.
→ E.g. In an area, 200 Parthenium plants and a huge banyan tree are seen. In such cases, measuring % cover or biomass is meaningful to show importance of banyan tree.
Total number is a difficult measure for a huge population. In such cases, relative population density (without knowing absolute population density) is used.
→ E.g. Number of fish caught per trap indicates its total population density in the lake.
→ In some cases, indirect estimation of population sizes is performed. E.g. Tiger census in national parks & tiger reserves based on pug marks & fecal pellets.

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Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:
Population is defined as the total number of individuals of a species present in a particular area at a given time. 'The scientific study of human population is called demography. The rapid increase in population over a relatively short period is called population explosion. Four basic processes are involved in increase or decrease in the population size. Population shows two types of growth; exponential and logistic.
  1. Which of the following factors are responsible for population explosion?
  1. Decrease in number of people of reproducible age.
  2. Decline in infant mortality rate.
  3. Increase in maternal mortality rate.
  4. Rapid decline in death rate.
  1. A and B
  2. B and C
  3. B and D
  4. A and D
  1. What is the shape of curve showing logistic growth?
  1. Sigmoid.
  2. J-shape.
  3. Linear.
  4. Hyperbola.
  1. What is immigration?
  1. Number of individuals of the population who left the habitat.
  2. Number of individuals that have come into the habitat.
  3. Number of individuals of a species per unit area at given time.
  4. Number of births per 1000 individuals.
  1. Equation of Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth is:
  1. $\frac{\text{dN}}{\text{dt}}=\text{rN}$
  2. $\frac{\text{dN}}{\text{dt}}=\frac{\text{K-N}}{\text{k}}$
  3. $\frac{\text{dN}}{\text{dt}}=\text{rN}\Big(\frac{\text{K-N}}{\text{k}}\Big)$
  4. $\frac{\text{dN}}{\text{dt}}=\text{rN}\Big(1-\frac{\text{K-N}}{\text{k}}\Big)\text{r}$
  1. Which of the following contributes to decrease in population?
  1. Fertility.
  2. Natality.
  3. Social mobility.
  4. Emigration.
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:

Embryo develops at the micropylar end of the embryo sac, where the zygote is situated. Most zygotes divided only after certain amount of endosperm is formed. The early stages of embryo development are similar in both monocotyledons and dicotyledons. The zygote gives rise to the proembryo and subsequently to the globular heart-shaped and mature embryo. A typical dicotyledonous embryo consists of an embryonal axis and two cotyledons. Embryo of monocotyledons possess only one cotyledon.

  1. True embryo develops as a result of fusion of:
  1. Two polar nuclei of embryo sac.
  2. An egg cell and a male gamete.
  3. Synergid and male gamete.
  4. A male gamete and antipodals.
  1. Refer to the given diagram of the embryo of an angiospermous plant with parts labelled P, Q and R. Select the correct statement(s) regarding this.

  1. Part 'P' supplies nutrition to the developing embryo.
  2. Part 'Q' is the protective sheath of radicle and root cap.
  3. Part 'R' is the protective sheath of shoot apex and leaf primordia.
  4. The embryo shown in the diagram is present in members of Family Poaceae.
  1. (IV) only.
  2. (II) and (III) only.
  3. (I) and (IV) only.
  4. (I), (II), (III) and (IV).
  1. Which of the given statements are true?
  1. During the development of a dicot embryo, heart-shaped embryo is followed by globular embryo.
  2. The part of embryonal axis above the level of cotyledons is epicotyl, while the part below the level of cotyledons is hypocotyl.
  3. Monocot seeds possess a single cotyledon, represented by scutellum.
  1. (I) and (II).
  2. (II) and (III).
  3. (I) and (III).
  4. (I), (II) and (III).
  1. Consider the following parts of an embryonal axis of a dicot seed.
  1. Hypocotyl.
  2. Epicotyl.
  3. Radicle.
  4. Plumule.

In which of the following the above parts are correctly arranged from top to base?

  1. (III) → (I) → (II) → (IV).
  2. (II) → (I) → (III) → (IV).
  3. (IV) → (II) → (I) → (III).
  4. (III) → (IV) → (II) → (I).
  1. In grass family, the cotyledon, is called:
  1. Epiblast.
  2. Plumule.
  3. Scutellum.
  4. Perisperm.
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Excessive exploitation of species, whether a plant or animal reduces the size of its population so it becomes vulnerable to extinction. Such as Dodo and passenger pigeon have become extinct due to over exploitation by humans. Thus the world is facing accelerated rates of species extinctions, largely due to human interference.

  1. Which of the following cause of biodiversity loss is not included in evil quartet?
  1. Coextinction.
  2. Pollution.
  3. Alien species invasion.
  4. Habitat loss and fragmentation.
  1. Identify the species that have become extinct due to over exploitation.
  1. Stellar sea cow.
  2. Yucca moth.
  3. Blatta orientalis.
  4. Nile Perch.
  1. Factors which make species susceptible to extinction are:
  1. Large population size.
  2. Lack of genetic variability.
  3. Ower status of trophic level.
  4. Ability to switch over to ahem ate foods.
  1. Assertion: Pollution reduces species biodiversity.

Reason: Spill over of oil in sea causes death of several marine animals.

  1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
  2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
  3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
  4. Both assertion and reason are false.
  1. ________ is the first major cause of species extinction.
  1. Coextinction.
  2. Over exploitation.
  3. Habitat destruction.
  4. Alien species invasion.
Suggest some methods to assist infertile couples to have children.
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Green manuring is the fanning practice where a leguminous plant which has derived enough benefits from its association with appropriate species of Rhizobium, is ploughed into the field soil and then a non-legume is sown and allowed to get benefitted from the already present nitrogen fixer. Some legumes, such as, Crotolaria juncea, Sesbania rostrata, Lencaena leucocephala, etc. are used as green manure. Rhizobia, that fix atmospheric nitrogen in the form of nitrate, live in the roots ofleguminous plants. These nutrients are used by non-leguminous plants through the practice of green manuring.
  1. Green manures mainly provide nutrient enriched in:
  1. Magnesium.
  2. Sulphur.
  3. Nitrogen.
  4. Both (a) and (b).
  1. Which of the following plants is used as green manure in crop fields?
  1. Saccharum.
  2. Dichanthium.
  3. Phyllonthus.
  4. Crotolaria.
  1. Green manure plants belong to the Family:
  1. Lamiaceae.
  2. Papilionaceae.
  3. Liliaceae.
  4. Poaceae.
  1. Due to excess use of chemical fertilisers rich in nitrate, ________ disease occurred in children.
  1. Jaundice.
  2. Septicemia.
  3. Methemoglobinemia.
  4. Botulism.
  1.  A green manure is:
  1. Rice.
  2. Maize.
  3. Sorghum.
  4. Sesbania.
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:

Regular change in temperature that occurs at specific intervals of time is called thennoperiodicity. It is of two types-diurnal and seasonal thermoperiodicity. Diumal periodicity refers to temperatures of day and night. It determines periods ofannual activity. In season periodicity different temperature prevails in different seasons of the year. 'Tiley favour different aspects of plant and animal life termed as phenology. For example in wheat, leaf growth requires a temperature of 10º-25ºC. Apple requires temperature below 7ºC for a period of 800 hrs before flowering and fruiting can occur. Low temperature is required for germination of some seeds as well as flowering in some plants. It also determines growth, reproduction, colour and morphology of animals. Both low and high temperature cause stress in organisms which is overcome by particular adaptations.

  1. Some plants require low temperature treatment for flowering. This phenomenon is known as:
  1. Photoperiodism.
  2. Vemalisation.
  3. Thermoperiodism.
  4. None of these.
  1. Animals found in arctic zones are called.
  1. microtherms
  2. Megatherms
  3. Mesotherms
  4. Hekistotherms
  1. Which of the following parts of wheat plant grows maximum in temperature around 10º-25ºC?
  1. Root
  2. Seeds
  3. Leaf
  4. Stem
  1. "Different temperatures prevail in different seasons of the year." It represents:
  1. Diurnal thermoperiodicity.
  2. Seasonal periodicity.
  3. Homeostasis.
  4. Thermoregulation.
  1. Assertion: Low and high temperature causes stress in organisms.

Reasons: Organisms show specific adaptations to overcome stressful condition.

  1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
  2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
  3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
  4. Both assertion and reason are false.
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Priya was 4 years old when she contracted chicken pox. It took her around 15 days to recover completely. Now Priya is 5 years old, so her mother got her vaccinated few days back for DPT (5th dose) as per immunisation program. Recently she was playing with her friend in the park when her friend accidently fell on iron pipe and badly bruised her knee. She was taken to the hospital where doctor gave her ATS injection and painkillers. Based on the above information, answer the following questions.

  1. Select the correct statement.
  1. Priya has developed natural active immunity against chicken pox.
  2. Priya has developed artificial active immunity against DPT.
  3. Priya's friend has developed artificial passive immunity against tetanus.
  4. All of these
  1. Which of the following do you think is an example of natural passive immunity?
  1. Administration of AGS (anti gas gangrene serum) in a person.
  2. Transfer of IgA antibodies from mother to baby through mother's milk.
  3.  A person recovered from viral infection.
  4. A child vaccinated for polio.
  1. Which of the following is true for active immunity?
  1. It provides immediate relief.
  2. It is temporary, not long lasting
  3. It has no side effects.
  4. None of these
  1. Select the incorrect match.
  1. Passive immunity-IgG antibodies crossing placental barrier to reach fetus.
  2. Active immunity-Vaccination against corona virus.
  3. Active immunity-Administration of antidiphtheria serum in patient.
  4. Passive immunity-Fetus having mother's milk.
  1. Assertion: A person recovered from measles develops an active immunity against this infection.

Reason: In active immunity, person's own cells develop antibodies in response to infection.

  1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
  2. Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
  3. Assertion is true, but reason is false.
  4. Both assertion and reason are false.
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:

Biosphere reserves are multipurpose protected areas which are meant for preserving genetic diversity in representative ecosystems of various natural biomes and unique biological communities by protecting wild populations, traditional life style of tribals and domesticated plant/animal genetic resources. Each biosphere reserve has three zones-core, buffer and transition zone.

  1. Which of the following is similar to biosphere reserve in terms of conservation?
  1. Gene banks.
  2. Offsite collection.
  3. Orchards.
  4. Hotspots.
  1. Refer to the given figure representing different zones of a biosphere reserve and select the correct option regarding it.

  1. A-Limited human activity is allowed such as for research and education.
  2. B-An active co-operation occurs between reserve management and local people for activities like cropping, settlements, etc.
  3. C-No human activity is allowed.
  4. None of these.
  1. Refer to the given diagrammatic representation of a biosphere reserve.

Select the incorrect statement regarding X, Y and Z.

  1. X is devoted to strict protection of wildlife and no human activity is allowed in this zone.
  2. In Y, only limited human activity (compatible with conservation) is allowed.
  3. In Z, commercial exploitation of natural resources is allowed.
  4. Tourism is allowed in Z zone only.
  5. Zone Y helps to maintain the lifestyle of the tribal people living in the area.
  1. (iii), (iv) and (v) only
  2. (ii), (iii) and (v) only
  3. (i), (iii) and (iv) only
  4. (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
  1. Biosphere reserves differ from national parks and wildlife sanctuaries because in the former.
  1. Human beings are not allowed to enter
  2. People are an integral part of the system
  3. Plants are paid greater attention than the animals
  4. Living organisms are brought from all over the world and preserved for posterity.
  1. MAB Programme means.
  1. Man and biosphere programme.
  2. Man and biodiversity conservation programme.
  3. Manually aided biosphere conservation programme.
  4. None of these.
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:

A woman unable to conceive after many years of regular unprotected coitus went to specialised infertility clinic. On complete examination, woman was found to be normal, while male partner was diagnosed with infertility. Male partner is unable to copulate the female. Couple was advised to opt for assisted reproductive technology (ART).

  1. Which ART could have been useful for this couple?
  1. ZIFT
  2. IUT
  3. AI
  4. GIFT
  1. In which of the following infertility issues could this technique be used?
  1. Anovulation.
  2. Oligospermia.
  3. Low fructose content in seminal fluid.
  4. All of these.
  1. Which among the following techniques is useful to conceive when there is very low sperm count?
  1. GIFT
  2. Test-tube baby
  3. IUT
  4. JCSI
  1. Assertion: Artificial insemination (AI) is intra-uterine insemination.

Reason: In Al, sperms collected from donor are introduced into the uterus.

  1. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
  2. Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
  3.  Assertion is true, but reason is false.
  4. Both assertion and reason are false
  1. Success rate of artificial insemination technique is:
  1. 20-40%
  2. 60-70%
  3. 40-50%
  4. 5-7%
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