Question
If either $\vec{a}=\vec {0}$ or $\vec{b}=\vec{0}$, then $\vec{a} \times \vec{b}=\vec 0$. Is the converse true? Justify your answer with an example.
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| $\text{X}=\text{x}_\text{i}:$ | $1$ | $2$ | $3$ |
| $\text{P}(\text{X}=\text{x}_\text{i}):$ | $\frac{1}{4}$ | $\frac{1}{8}$ | $\frac{5}{8}$ |