- A$a,c,p$ are in $G.P.$
- B$a,c,p$ are in $A.P.$
- ✓$a,b,c,d$ are in $G.P.$
- D$a,b,c,d$ are in $A.P.$
$=0$
$\Rightarrow\left(a^{2} p^{2}+2 a b p+b^{2}\right)+\left(b^{2} p^{2}+2 b c p+c^{2}\right)+$
$\left(c^{2} p^{2}+2 c d p+d^{2}\right)=0$
$\Rightarrow(a b+b)^{2}+(b p+c)^{2}+(c p+d)^{2}=0$
This is possible only when $a p+b=0$ and $b p+c=0$ and $c p+d=0$
$p =-\frac{ b }{ a }=-\frac{ c }{ b }=-\frac{ d }{ c }$
or $\frac{ b }{ a }=\frac{ c }{ b }=\frac{ d }{ c }$
$\therefore a , b , c , d$ are in $G . P$
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($A$) There exists a function $f \in S$ such that $X_f=0$
($B$) For every function $f \in S$, we have $X_f \leq 2$
($C$) There exists a function $f \in S$ such that $X_f=2$
($D$) There does $NOT$ exist any function $f$ in $\mathrm{S}$ such that $\mathrm{X}_f=1$