The statement p→(∼q) is equivalent to - Vidyadip

MCQ

The statement p→(∼q) is equivalent to

A
$q \rightarrow p$
✓
$\sim q \vee \sim p$
C
$p \wedge \sim q$
D
$\sim q \rightarrow p$

✓

Answer

Correct option: B.

$\sim q \vee \sim p$

(B)
$\begin{aligned} p \rightarrow(\sim q ) & =\sim p \vee \sim q \\ & \equiv \sim q \vee \sim p \end{aligned}$

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