Question
"When a monomial is divided by a monomial, the quotient is a monomial."
Siya disagrees with the statement as $x^2$ divided by $x^2$, is 1. Is Siya correct? Justify your answer.

Answer

No, Siya is not correct.
The given statement i.e. when a monomial is divided by a monomial; the quotient is a monomial, is correct.
Justification $x^2$ and $x^2$ both are monomials.
$
\begin{array}{l}
x^2=x \times x \\
x^2=x \times x
\end{array}
$
Now, on dividing $x^2$ by $x^2$, we get
$
x^2 ÷ x^2=\frac{x \times x}{x \times x}=1
$
which is also a monomial.

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