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Case study (4 Marks)

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Question 14 Marks
Answer
(1) (A) $n=7, p=\frac{1}{6}$
Explanation: Let p denote the probability of getting a total of 7 in a single throw of a pair of dice. Then $p=\frac{6}{36}=\frac{1}{6}$
$[\because$ The sum can be 7 in any one of the ways : $(1,6)$, $(6,1),(2,5),(5,2),(3,4)$ and $(4,3)]$
So, the parameters are:
$n=7$ and $p=\frac{1}{6}$
(2) (B) $\left(\frac{5}{6}\right)^7$
Explanation: The X is a binomial variate with parameters $n = 7$ and $p = \frac{1}{6}$
$P(X=r)={ }^7 C_r\left(\frac{1}{6}\right)^r\left(\frac{5}{6}\right)^{7-r}$
$r=0,1,2, \ldots,\quad\quad\quad\ldots\text{(i)}$
$\left[\because q=1-p=1-\frac{1}{6}=\frac{5}{6}\right]$
Probability of no success = P(X = 0)
$={ }^7 C_0\left(\frac{1}{6}\right)^0\left(\frac{5}{6}\right)^{7-0}$
$=\left(\frac{5}{6}\right)^7$
(3) (C) $35\left(\frac{1}{6}\right)^7$
Explanation: From eq. (i),
Probability of 6 success $= P(X = 6)$
$\begin{array}{l}={ }^7 C_6\left(\frac{1}{6}\right)^6\left(\frac{5}{6}\right)^{7-6} \\ =35\left(\frac{1}{6}\right)^7\end{array}$
(4) (A) $\left(\frac{1}{6}\right)^5$
Explanation: Probability of at least 6 success
$\begin{array}{l}=P(X \geq 6) \\ =P(X=6)+P(X=7) \\ ={ }^7 C_6\left(\frac{1}{6}\right)^6\left(\frac{5}{6}\right)^{7-6}+{ }^7 C_7\left(\frac{1}{6}\right)^7\left(\frac{5}{6}\right)^{7-7} \\ ={ }^7 C_6\left(\frac{1}{6}\right)^6\left(\frac{5}{6}\right)+{ }^7 C_7\left(\frac{1}{6}\right)^7\left(\frac{5}{6}\right)^0 \\ =7\left(\frac{1}{6}\right)^6\left(\frac{5}{6}\right)+\left(\frac{1}{6}\right)^7 \\ =\left(\frac{1}{6}\right)^6\left(\frac{35}{6}+\frac{1}{6}\right)=\left(\frac{1}{6}\right)^5\end{array}$
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Question 24 Marks
Answer
(1) (D) 4
Explanation: Clearly X can take values 0, 1, 2, 3. So, in total X can take total 4 values.
(2) (A) $=\frac{1}{8}$
Explanation: P(X = 0) = (Probability of getting a slip written 0 on it) $=\frac{1}{8}.$
(3) (B) $\frac{3}{8}$
Explanation: P(X = 1) = (Probability of getting a slip written 1 on it) = $\frac{3}{8}.$
(4) (A)
$X$$0$$1$$2$$3$
$P(X)$$\frac{1}{8}$$\frac{3}{8}$$\frac{3}{8}$$\frac{1}{8}$
Explanation: P(X = 0) = (Probability of getting a slip written 0 on it) $=\frac{1}{8}.$
P(X = 1) = (Probability of getting a slip written 1 on it) $=\frac{3}{8}.$
P(X = 2) = (Probability of getting a slip written 2 on it) $=\frac{1}{8}.$
P(X = 3) = (Probability of getting a slip written 3 on it) $=\frac{1}{8}.$
Thus, probability distribution is given as:
$X$$0$$1$$2$$3$
$P(X)$$\frac{1}{8}$$\frac{3}{8}$$\frac{3}{8}$$\frac{1}{8}$
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Question 34 Marks
Answer
(1) (A) $e^{-0.02}$
Here given N = 1000 , n = 10
$p=\frac{1}{500}=0.002$
$\Rightarrow \quad m=n p=10 \times 0.002$
$\Rightarrow \quad m=0.02$
$P($ No defective blade $)=P(X=0)$
$=e^{-0.02}(0.002)^0=e^{-0.02}$
(2) (B) $0.02 e^{-0.02}$
Explanation: P(one defective blade) = P(X = 1)
$\begin{array}{l}=\frac{e^{-0.02}(0.02)^1}{1!} \\ =0.02 e^{-0.02}\end{array}$
(3) (A) 0.0002
Explanation: P(two defective blade) = P(X = 2)
$\begin{array}{l}=\frac{e^{-0.02}(0.02)^2}{2!} \\ =\frac{0.9802 \times 0.0004}{2} \\ =0.000196 \\ =0.0002\end{array}$
(4) (A) 9802
Explanation: P (no defective blade) = $e^{-0.02}$
= 0.9802
So, the approximate number of packets containing no defective blade
$= 10000 \times 0.9802 = 9802$
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Case study (4 Marks) - Applied Maths STD 12 Science Questions - Vidyadip