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Biotechnology: Principles and Processes BIOLOGY - Biotechnology: Principles and Processes

Gujarat Board (GSEB) - STD 12 Science - BIOLOGY (GSEB - English Medium). 595 questions in this chapter.

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Biotechnology: Principles and Processes question types

595 questions across 7 question groups — pick any mix to generate a BIOLOGY paper with step-by-step answer keys.

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Sample Questions

Biotechnology: Principles and Processes questions

One sample from each question group in this chapter. Select any group above to see the full set with answer keys.

Q 22 Marks Questions2 Marks
Make a chart (with diagrammatic representation) showing a restriction enzyme, the substrate DNA on which it acts, the site at which it cuts DNA and the product it produces.
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Q 73 Marks Question3 Marks
Can you think and answer how a reporter enzyme can be used to monitor transformation of host cells by foreign DNA in addition to a selectable marker?
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Q 83 Marks Question3 Marks
  1. Explain the significance of 'palindromic nucleotide sequence' in the formation of recombinant DNA.
  2. Write the use of restriction endonuclease in the above process.
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Q 103 Marks Question3 Marks
  1. Name the selectable markers in the cloning vector pBR322? Mention the role they play.
  2. Why is the coding sequence of an enzyme (â-galactosidase) a preferred selectable marker in comparison to the ones named above?
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Q 11Case study (4 Marks)4 Marks
Read the following and answer any four questions from 2(i) to 2(v) given below:

Restriction endonuclease was isolated for the first ti me by W. Arb er in 1962 in bacteria. Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA duplex at specific points therefore they are also called as molecular scissors or biological scissors. Three types of restriction endonucleases are Type I, Type II and Type III but only Type II restriction endonucleases are used in recombinant DNA technology. Restriction endonuclease EcoR I recognises the base sequence GAATTC in DNA duplex and cut strands between G and A.

  1. Only type II restriction enzymes are used in gene manipulation because
  1. ATP is not required for cleaving.
  2. It consists of three different subunits.
  3. It makes cleavage or cut in both the strands of DNA molecule.
  4. Both (a) and (c).
  1. Which of the following ions are used by restriction endonucleases for restriction?
  1. Mg2+ ions
  2. Mn2+ ions
  3. Na2+ ions
  4. K2+ ions
  1.  Restriction endonuclease was isolated for the first time in a:
  1. Plant cell.
  2. Animal cell.
  3. Prokaryotic cell.
  4. Genninal cell.
  1. Restriction endonucleases are also called as molecular or biological scissors because,
  1. They cleave base pairs of DNA only at their terminal ends.
  2. They cleave one or both the strands of DNA.
  3. They act only on single stranded DNA.
  4. None of these.
  1. Select the option that correctly states the working action of restriction endonuclease EcoR I on DNA sequence GAATTC

  1. $\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \downarrow\\5'-\text{GAATTC}-3'\\3'-\text{CTTAAG}-5'\\\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \uparrow$

  2. $ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \downarrow\\5'-\text{GAATTC}-3'\\3'-\text{CTTAAG}-5'\\\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \uparrow$

  3. $\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \downarrow\\5'-\text{GAATTC}-3'\\3'-\text{CTTAAG}-5'\\\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \uparrow$

  4. $\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \downarrow\\5'-\text{GAATTC}-3'\\3'-\text{CTTAAG}-5'\\\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \uparrow$

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Q 12Case study (4 Marks)4 Marks
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:

Tools used in the formation of recombinant DNA are of three types. These are enzymes, cloning vectors and competent host. lysing enzymes are used to extract DNA for experimental purpose from the cells. Cleaving enzymes break the DNA molecules. TI1ey are of three types : exonucleases, endonucleases and restriction endonucleases. A competent host is required for transformation with recombinant DNA and cloning vectors help to propagate DNA.

  1. Which of the following is an example of natural Iysing activity in a human body?
  1. Lysozyme present in tears dissolve the bacterial cell wall.
  2. Conversion of starch to maltose in the buccal cavity
  3. Absorption of digested food into the intestinal cells.
  4. Conversion of protein molecules into amino acids in the stomach.
  1. Which of the following depicts exonuclease activity?
  1.  

  1.  

  1.  

 

  1. All of these
  1. Cloning vectors are the DNA molecules that.
  1. Carry foreign DNA segment but do not replicate inside the host cell.
  2. Carry foreign DNA segment and replicate inside the host cell.
  3. Transfer nuclear DNA form nucleus to the cytoplasm of the same cells.
  4. Help in sealing gaps in DNA segments.
  1. Transfer of DNA into a eucaryotic cell is called:
  1. Transformation.
  2. Transduction.
  3. Transfection.
  4. Electroporation.
  1. Assertion: Type I restriction enzymes are not used in rDNA technology.

Reason: Biotechnology mostly involves cutting and pasting of desired DNA fragments.

  1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
  2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
  3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
  4. Both assertion and reason are false.
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Q 13Case study (4 Marks)4 Marks
Read the following and answer any four questions from 7(i) to 7(v) given below:

The vectors are DNA molecules that can carry a foreign DNA segment and replicate inside the host cell. Vectors may be plasmids, bacteriophages (viruses that attack bacteria), cosmids, yeast artificial chromosomes (YACs), Bacterial artificial chromosomes (BACs) and viruses. The most widely used, versatile, easily manipulated vector pBR 322 is an ideal plasmid vector. Features that are required to facilitate cloning into a vector includes origin of replication (Ori) which is a specific sequence of DNA bases responsible for initiating replication, selectable marker genes and cloning sites

  1. Pin pBR 322 denotes that it is a:
  1. plasmid
  2. prokaryote
  3. protist
  4. plant cell.
  1. Ori is a specific DNA sequence that help in.
  1. Attachment of primers.
  2. Initiation of replication.
  3. Extension of DNA base.
  4. Initiation of denaturation.
  1. A and B shown in the figure respectively indicates:

  1. Pvu II and Cla I.
  2. ROP and Sal I.
  3. ampR and tetR.
  4. tetR and ampR.
  1. Selectable markers in vector,
  1. Are responsible for replication.
  2. Help in selecting transformants from non-transform ants.
  3. Code for proteins involved in the replicating plasmids.
  4. Contain unique recognition sites.
  1.  Plasmid vectors are:
  1. dsDNA molecule
  2. Extra-chromosomal
  3. Present in bacteria and yeast
  4. All of these.
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Q 14Case study (4 Marks)4 Marks
Read the following and answer any four questions from 6(i) to 6(v) given below:

Rama lives in a society where a robbery occurred last night. Robbers came into the flat and murdered the old lady residing there. Police came and restricted the entry into the flat. They took samples from the room, where the dead body was found. While examining, they found that there is some blood and tissue in the nails of old lady. According to their observation, police filtered out their inspection to three suspects viz. servant, cook and milkman. Finally after two days of robbery, police caught the criminal. It was the old lady's cook. Rama was amazed to see that how quickly police completed and shut the case. She asked the inspector that how they did it? The police man told her that it become possible due to the sample collected from the victim, that lead them to the criminal. TI1e sample taken from nail scraping was amplified using PCR and then tested.

  1. What technique was used by the police to identify the criminal?
  1. DNA fingerprinting.
  2. Gel electrophoresis.
  3. Molecular diagnosis.
  4. Clonning.
  1. In PCR, the temperature used to denature the DNA is about:
  1. 76º
  2. 25º
  3. 95º
  4. 40º
  1. Which of the following statements regarding PCR is correct?
  1. Taq polymerase, which is isolated from bacterium Thermus aquaticus is stable at low temperature only.
  2. With the help of DNA ligase, the complementary sticky ends of the DNA are joined to produce a rDNA.
  3. Since the sequence of primers are complementary to 5' end of the template DNA, they anneal to it.
  4. DNA purified from the cell is precipitated by adding hot ethanol.
  1. Taq polymerase synthesises DNA region between the primers using:
  1. Mg2+
  2. dNTPs
  3. DNA ligase
  4. Both (a) and (b).
  1. Given below are steps of polymerase chain reaction.

Select the option that correctly mention the sequence in which they occur.

  1. (ii) → (iii) → (i)
  2. (i) → (ii) → (iii)
  3. (iii) → (i) → (ii)
  4. (ii) → (i) → (iii)
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Q 15Case study (4 Marks)4 Marks
Read the following and answer any four questions from S(i) to S(v) given below:

Rajat is a student of biotechnology. His professor tells him that for transformation with recombinant DNA the bacterial cells must be made capable of taking up DNA as DNA do not pass through membrane. While doing experiment in the lab, Rajat noticed that bacterial cells were not taking up the foreign DNA even after treating it with sodium ion. He asked his professor, the reason behind this. His professor explained that he should check the valency and charge of the ion that he is using for the treatment.

  1. It is difficult for DNA to pass through the membrane as
  1. It is a hydrophilic molecule.
  2. It is a hydrophobic molecule.
  3. It is a circular molecule.
  4. It changes its shape when it comes in contact with host cell.
  1. What type of ions are used for DNA mediated gene transfers?
  1. Divalent anions.
  2. Divalent cations.
  3. Monovalent cations.
  4. Monovalent anions.
  1. rDNA stands for,
  1. reduced DNA
  2. red DNA
  3. recombinant DNA
  4. related DNA.
  1. Which of the following statements with regard to DNA is correct?
  1. DNA is a positively charged molecule having two polynucleotide chains.
  2. Nitrogen bases of two polynucleotide chain form complementary pairs, i.e., A opposite G and T opposite C.
  3. Backbone of DNA chain is built up of alternate deoxyribose sugar and phosphate group.
  4. Both (a) and (c)
  1. Assertion: Competent host is essential for transformation with rDNA.

Reason: Transfer of DNA in a prokaryotic cell is called transfection.

  1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
  2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
  3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
  4. Both assertion and reason are false.
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Q 22M.C.Q (1 Marks)1 Mark
Which of the following should be chosen for best yield if one were to produce a recombinant protein in large amounts?
  • A
    A stirred-tank bioreactor without in-lets and out-lets.
  • B
    A continuous culture system.
  • C
    Laboratory flask of largest capacity.
  • D
    Any of the above.
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Q 23M.C.Q (1 Marks)1 Mark
Which of the following statements does not hold true for restriction enzyme?
  • A
    It produces the same kind of sticky ends in different DNA molecules.
  • B
    It recognises a palindromic nucleotide sequence.
  • C
    It is an endonuclease.
  • D
    It is isolated from viruses.
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Q 24M.C.Q (1 Marks)1 Mark
The most important feature in a plasmid to be used as a vector is:
  • A
    Origin of replication (ori).
  • B
    Presence of a selectable marker.
  • C
    Presence of sites for restriction endonuclease.
  • D
    Its size.
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Q 26Assertion (A) & Reason (B) MCQ1 Mark
Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion and the other labelled Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
  1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
  2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
  3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
  4. Both assertion and reason are false.
Assertion: The insertion of DNA fragment into pBR 322 plasmid using enzyme Pst I or Pvu I make ampicillin resistant gene non functional.
Reason: Bacterial cells containing recombinant pBR322 is unable to grow in the presence of ampicillin.
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Q 27Assertion (A) & Reason (B) MCQ1 Mark
Directions: In the following questions, the Assertions (A) and Reason(s) (R) have been put forward. Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct alternative from the following:
Assertion: Recognition site should be preferably single and responsive to commonly used restriction enzyme.
Reason: In pBR 322 alien DNA is ligated generally in the area of Bam - HI site of tetracycline resistance gene.
  1. If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
  2. If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
  3. If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
  4. If both the assertion and reason are false.
  5. If the assertion is false but reason is true.
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Q 28Assertion (A) & Reason (B) MCQ1 Mark
Directions: In the following questions, the Assertions (A) and Reason(s) (R) have been put forward. Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct alternative from the following:
Assertion: A bacterial cell with no restriction enzymes will be easily infected and lysed by bacteriophages.
Reason: Restriction enzymes catalyse synthesis of protective coat around bacterial cell that prevents bacteriophage attack.
  1. Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.
  2. Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion.
  3. Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
  4. Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
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Q 29Assertion (A) & Reason (B) MCQ1 Mark
Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion and the other labelled Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
  1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
  2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
  3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
  4. Both assertion and reason are false.
Assertion: Bacteriophage vectors are more advantageous than plasmid vectors.
Reason: Bacteriophage vectors can be easily detected at the time of cloning experiments.
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Q 30Assertion (A) & Reason (B) MCQ1 Mark
Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion and the other labelled Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
  1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
  2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
  3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
  4. Both assertion and reason are false.
Assertion: Type I restriction endonucleases are not used in recombinant DNA technology.
Reason: Type I restriction endonucleases recognise specific sites within the DNA but do not cut these sites.
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Q 325 Marks Questions5 Marks
If a desired gene is identified in an organism for some experiments, explain the process of the following:
  1. Cutting this desired gene at specific location.
  2. Synthesis of multiple copies of this desired gene.
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Q 335 Marks Questions5 Marks
  1. Describe the characteristics a cloning vector must possess.
  2. Why DNA cannot pass through the cell membrane? Explain. How is a bacterial cell made ‘competent’ to take up recombinant DNA from the medium?
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Q 345 Marks Questions5 Marks
For selection of recombinants, insertional inactivation of antibiotic marker has been superceded by insertional inactivation of a marker gene coding for a chromogenic substrate. Give reasons.
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Q 355 Marks Questions5 Marks
Illustrate the design of a bioreactor. Highlight the difference between a flask in your laboratory and a bioreactor which allows cells to grow in a continuous culture system.
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