Question
A patient is suffering from ADA deficiency. Can he be cured? How?

Answer

A person suffering from ADA deficiency can be cured by various methods which are discusses below:
  • Bone Marrow Transplantation: This is a costly and risky surgical procedure. It requires a suitable donor which is difficult to find. An identical twin is supposed to be the best donor; because chances of tissue rejection are very high in bone marrow transplantation.
  • Enzyme Replacement Therapy: Enzyme replacement therapy is based on administering the missing enzyme to the patient by injection. This involves recurrent treatment that has escalated the cost this therapy.
  • Gene Therapy: Gene therapy involves taking out the lymphocytes from the patient’s blood. Then are lymphocytes are genetically engineered to add the missing gene. Recombinant lymphocytes are grown in suitable medium and then administered to the patient. This too is not a permanent cure because lymphocytes have a certain lifespan. The patient needs to be administered lymphocytes after frequent intervals. However, the gene isolated from marrow cells producing ADA is introduced into cells at early embryonic stage could be permanent cure for this disease.

Need a full question paper?

Generate a complete, print-ready paper with questions like this in minutes — across 16+ boards, with answer keys.

Start Generating Free

Similar questions

Define ecological pyramids and describe with examples, pyramids of number and biomass.
Give a brief account of evolution of vertebrates.
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:

Discovery of penicillin by Alexander Fleming in 1928 marked the beginning of the remarkable era in medical field. Penicillin was the first antibiotic extracted from Penicillium notatum. Antibiotics are used to treat bacterial diseases. These can be broad spectrum which can kill diverse group of disease causing bacteria and narrow spectrum which is effective only against one group of pathogenic strain. Antibiotics can act as bactericides or bacteriostatic. Bactericidal antibiotics kill bacteria by - disruption of cell wall synthesis (e.g., penicillin, cephalosporin, etc.), inhibition of SOS ribosome function (e.g.; erythromycin), inhibition of 30S ribosome function (e.g., streptomycin, neomycin), inhibition of amino acid-tRNA binding to ribosome (e.g., tetracyline). etc. Bacteriostatic antibiotics do not kill the bacteria rather they restrict the growth of bacteria. Penicillin belongs to $\beta$-lactum group of antibiotics and it inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding and inactivating protein. It inhibits transpeptidation of reaction and blocks cross-linking of the cell wall. It is used to treat tonsilitis, sore throat, gonorrhoea, rheumatic fever and some pneumonia types.

  1. The first antibiotic was extracted from a:
  1. Lichen.
  2. Fungus.
  3. Eubacteria.
  4. Acti-nomycetes.
  1. Which of the following kills bacteria by interfering SOS ribosome function?
  1. Cephalosporin.
  2. Erythromycin.
  3. Streptomycin.
  4. Neomycin.
  1. $\beta$-lactum group of antibiotics kill the bacterial pathogen by:
  1. Disruption of plasma membrane.
  2. Inhibition of translation of mRNA.
  3. Inhibition of translation of mRNA
  4. Inhibition of transcription of mRNA.
  1. Penicillin is not used to treat.
  1. Pneumonia.
  2. Tonsilitis.
  3. Rheumatic fever.
  4. Candidiasis.
  1. Assertion: Cephalosporins act by disruption of bacterial cell wall synthesis mechanism.

Reason: Cephalosporins are bacteriostatic antibiotics.

  1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
  2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
  3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
  4. Both assertion and reason are false.
Explain the methods for making host cell competent to insert the r DNA.
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:
The pollen grains or microspores are the male reproductive bodies of a flower and are contained in the pollen sac or microsporangia. Each pollen grain consists of a single microscopic cell, possessing two coats: the exine and the in tine. The exine of a pollen grain is made of chemically stable material. Because of this, pollen grains are often very well preserved for thousands of years in soil and sediments.
  1. One of the most resistant biological material present in the exine of pollen grain is:
  1. Pectocellulose.
  2. Sporopollenin.
  3. Suberin.
  4. Cellulose.
  1. The exine possesses one or more thin places known as:
  1. Raphe.
  2. Germ pores.
  3. Hilum.
  4. Endothecium.
  1. What is the function of germ pore?
  1. Emergence of radicle.
  2. Absorption of water for seed germination.
  3. Initiation of pollen tube.
  4. All of these.
  1. What is the key advantage to the plant for having such strong pollen grain walls?
  1. It protects the vital genetic material in the pollen grain.
  2. It allows pollen to serve as a valuable fossil record for the study of ancient plants.
  3. It prevents the pollen tube from growing out before the pollen grain reaches the stigma of a compatible species.
  4. It gives weight to the pollen grain, allowing it to cling better to the body surfaces of insect pollinators.
  1. The number of germ pores in dicots and monocots respectively are:
  1. One and three.
  2. Three and two.
  3. Two and three.
  4. Three and one.
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:

Oogenesis is the process of formation of ovum in ovaries. It consists of three phases : multiplication, growth and maturation. Oogenesis is controlled by hormones GnRH, LH, FSH. GnRH secreted by the hypothalamus stimulates the anterior lobe of pituitary gland to secrete LH and FSH.

  1. What is the function of hormone FSH?
  1. It inhibits the formation of estrogen.
  2. It induces the release of secondary oocyte.
  3. It stimulates the growth of Graafian follicles.
  4. It causes ovulation.
  1. Which hormone induces the rupture of the mature Graafian follicle?
  1. Follicle stimulating hormone.
  2. Gonadotropin releasing hormone.
  3. Progesterone.
  4. Luteinising hormone.
  1. Which cell division is involved in the formation of secondary oocyte?
  1. Mitosis.
  2. Meiosis I.
  3. Amitosis.
  4. Meiosis II.
  1. Identify the function(s) of LH.
  1. Release of secondary oocyte from Graafian follicle.
  2. Stimulates corpus luteum to secrete progesterone.
  3. Stimulates estrogen formation.
  4. Promotes development of egg to form secondary oocyte.
  1. (A) and (B) only.
  2. (B) and (C) only.
  3. (A), (C) and (D) only.
  4. (B) only.
  1. Assertion: The increase in progesterone level exerts positive feedback on GnRH.

Reason: The rising level of progesterone stimulate production of FSH and LH.

  1. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
  2. Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
  3. Assertion is true, but reason is false.
  4. Both assertion and reason are false.
What is chromosomal disorder? Explain any two aneuploidy with characters in humans.###Mention any two autosomal genetic disorders with their symptoms.
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:

Siddharth is a chain smoker. He got into this habit in early adolescence due to peer pressure and gradually got addicted to this habit. Its now almost 20 years he is into the habit of smoking. Since few months he is experiencing pain in chest, shortness of breath, wheezing and chronic cough with phlegm. He seeked advice of a medical practitioner who diagnosed him with lung cancer. Based on the above information, answer the following questions.

  1. What do you think is the possible carcinogen responsible for Siddharth's lung cancer?
  1. Nitrosamines
  2. Benzo(a)pyrene
  3. Hydrazine
  4. All of these
  1. How is lung cancer diagnosed?
  1. Computerised tomography scan
  2. Sputum cytolog
  3. Biopsy of lung tissue
  4. All of these
  1. From which of the following type of cancer is Siddharth suffering from?
  1. Sarcoma
  2. Carcinoma
  3. Lymphoma
  4. Leukemia
  1. Select the correct statement.
  1. Surgery, radiotherapy and chemotherapy can be used to treat lung cancer.
  2. Chemotherapy involves the exposure of cancerous parts to X rays which destroy rapidly growing cancer cells.
  3. Surgical removal of lung cancer tissue is suggested at advanced stage 4.
  4. Monoclonal antibodies can effectively treat lung cancer and can cure it completely.
  1. Assertion: Lung cancer if not treated at an early stage can spread to other initial organs of the body.

Reason: Cancer cell have uncontrolled proliferation and ability to invade new sites (metastasis).

  1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
  2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
  3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
  4. Both assertion and reason are false
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:

Cleavage is the series of rapid mitotic divisions in zygote and forms blastula. The 2, 4, 8, 16 daughter cells are called blastomeres. Embryo with 64 blastomeres is known as blastocyst and has blastocoel cavity. Blastocyst gets implanted in uterine wall and leads to pregnancy.

  1. Solid mass of cells with 16 blastomeres is called:
  1. Morula.
  2. Blastula.
  3. Gastrula.
  4. Zygote.
  1. At which stage of embryonic development, trophoectoderm develops?
  1. Zygote.
  2. Morula.
  3. Blastula.
  4. Gastrula.
  1. Site of implantation is:
  1. Endometrium of uterus.
  2. Cervix.
  3. Uterine fundus.
  4. Infundibulum of oviduct.
  1. Correct sequence of various structures formed during embryonic development is:
  1. Morula → Embryo → Gastrula → Blastula.
  2. Zygote → Embryo → Morula → Blastula.
  3. Blastula → Morula → Gastrula → Embryo.
  4. Zygote → Morula → Blastula → Gastrula.
  1. Assertion: Side of blastocyst with inner cell mass is called animal pole.

Reason: Inner cell mass gives rise to embryo.

  1. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
  2. Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
  3. Assertion is true, but reason is false.
  4. Both assertion and reason are false.
Explain- Restriction enzymes.