Question
Choose the correct answer from given four options in each of the Exercise:
If $\begin{vmatrix}2\text{x}&5\\8&\text{x}\end{vmatrix}=\begin{vmatrix}6&-2\\7&3\end{vmatrix},$ then value of x is:
  1. 3
  2. ±3
  3. ±6
  4. 6

Answer

  1. ±6

Solution:

We have, $\begin{vmatrix}2\text{x}&5\\8&\text{x}\end{vmatrix}=\begin{vmatrix}6&-2\\7&3\end{vmatrix}$

$\Rightarrow\ 2\text{x}^2-40=18+17$

$\Rightarrow\ 2\text{x}^2=32+40$

$\Rightarrow\ \text{x}^2=\frac{72}{2}=36$

$\Rightarrow\ \text{x}^2=36$

$\Rightarrow\ \text{x}=\pm6$

Need a full question paper?

Generate a complete, print-ready paper with questions like this in minutes — across 16+ boards, with answer keys.

Start Generating Free

Similar questions

If $A=\left[a_{i j}\right]_{2 \times 2}$, where $a_{i j}=\frac{(i+2 j)^2}{2}$, then $A$ is equal to
India play two matches each with West indies and Australia. In any match the probability of india getting 0,1 and 2 points are 0.45, 0.05 and 0.50 respectively. Assuming that the outcomes are indepecdent, the probability of india getting at least 7 points is.
The area bounded by the line y = 2x – 2, y = – x and x-axis is given by:
  1. $\frac{9}{2}\text{ sq.}\text{ units}$
  2. $\frac{43}{6}\text{ sq.}\text{ units}$
  3. $\frac{35}{6}\text{ sq.}\text{ units}$
  4. $\text{None of these}$
The value of $\int_{-\pi / 2}^{\pi / 2} \frac{\cos ^{2} x}{1+3^{x}} d x$ is
Let $f(x)$ be a function satisfying $f(x)+f(\pi-x)=$ $\pi^2, \forall x \in R$. Then $\int \limits_0^\pi f(x) \sin x d x$ is equal to $...........$.
If $y = {x^2} + {1 \over {{x^2} + {1 \over {{x^2} + {1 \over {{x^2} + ......\infty }}}}}},$ then ${{dy} \over {dx}} = $
The value of $\int_{}^{} {\frac{{{x^3}}}{{\sqrt {1 + {x^4}} }}\;dx} $ is
Let  ${\tan ^{ - 1}}\left( {\tan \frac{{5\pi }}{4}} \right) = \alpha ,{\tan ^{ - 1}}\left( { - \tan \frac{{2\pi }}{3}} \right) = \beta $ Then :-
$xy$ - plane divides the line joining the points $(2, 4, 5)$ and $(-4, 3, -2)$ in the ratio
Let $A=I_2-2 \mathrm{MM}^{\mathrm{T}}$, where $\mathrm{M}$ is real matrix of order $2 \times 1$ such that the relation $M^T M=I_1$ holds. If $\lambda$ is a real number such that the relation $\mathrm{AX}=\lambda \mathrm{X}$ holds for some non-zero real matrix $X$ of order $2 \times 1$, then the sum of squares of all possible values of $\lambda$ is equal to: