Biotechnology: Principles and Processes — BIOLOGY STD 12 Science — Question

Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:
IUCN maintains a Red Data Book or Red List which is a catalogue of taxa facing risk of extinction. The IUCN Red List (2004) documents the extinction of 784 species in the last 500 years. Some examples of recent extinctions include the dodo, quagga, thylacine and Steller's sea cow. The last twenty years alone have witnessed the disappearance of 27 species. Red List has eight categories of species.

1. Dodo, an extinct taxon, belongs to which country?

1. Mauritius
2. Africa
3. Australia
4. Russia

2. To which of the following categories of IUCN, Berberis nilghiriensis belongs?

1. Extinct.
2. Extinct in wild.
3. Endangered.
4. Critically endangered.

3. Steller's sea cow and passenger pigeon became extinct due to:

1. Alien species invasion.
2. Over-exploitation.
3. Coextinctions.
4. Intensive agriculture.

4. Bali, Javan and Caspian are:

1. Species of tiger.
2. Species of cheetah.
3. Subspecies of cheetah.
4. Subspecies of tiger.

5. Select the correct term for the following definitions (i, ii, iii, iv).

• The taxon is liable to become extinct if not allowed to realise its full biotic potential by providing protection from exotic species/ human exploitation/habitat deterioration/depletion of food.
• The taxon has been completely eliminated or died out from earth, e.g., Dodo.
• The taxon is facing a high risk of extinction in the wild in the near future due to decrease in its habitat, excessive predation or poaching.
• They are species with naturally small populations, either localised or thinly scattered, which are always at risk from pests/ pathogens/ predators/ exotic species.

	(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
(a)	Threatened	Extinct	Endangered	Rare
(b)	Endangered	Extinct	Threatened	Rare
(c)	Extinct	Rare	Threatened	Endangered
(d)	Threatened	Extinct	Rare	Endangered

A patient is suffering from ADA deficiency. Can he be cured? How?

Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:

Saurin, a M.Sc student, get an assignment on sewage treatment plant (STP) to study the microbial load. After visiting such plant in his locality, he makes a simplified diagram of the STP for his project. Study the diagram given below and answer the following questions.

1. In the diagram 'A' denotes:

1. Aeration tank.
2. Primary settling tank.
3. Secondary settling tank.
4. Sludge digester.

2. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the sludge released from A?

1. It is formed after primary treatment.
2. It does not require aeration.
3. It possesses floes of decomposer microbes.
4. It is used in landfills.

3. A large number of aerobic heterotrophic microbes grow in:

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. Both (a) and (b).

4. What is denoted by 'D' in the given diagram?

1. Primary sludge.
2. Primary effluent.
3. Activated sludge.
4. Secondary effluent.

5. Assertion: The colloided and finely suspended matter of sewage form aggregates which are called floes.

Reason: Floes contain masses of bacteria, slime and fungal filaments.

1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
4. Both assertion and reason are false.

Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:

Age sex structure of a population can be depicted in the form of a pyramid by plotting the percentage of population of each sex in each age class. Two age sex pyramids are as follows.

1. Which of the following is correct regarding pyramid B?

1. It represents stable population.
2. It represents expanding population.
3. It represents declining population.
4. Both (a) and (b).

2. Total number of individuals of a species per unit area per unit time is called.

1. Population size.
2. Population density.
3. Demography.
4. Population dynamics.

3. Which of the following is correct regarding age sex pyramid A and B?

1. A represents the age sex pyramid of developed country.
2. B represents the age sex pyramid of developing country.
3. A represents rapidly growing population.
4. Both (a) and (b).

4. A population with a large proportion of older individuals than younger ones will likely to:

1. Grow larger first and then decline.
2. Continue to grow indefinitely.
3. Decline.
4. None of these.

5. Assertion: Bell shaped age pyramid represents a stable population.

Reason: ln a stable population, proportion of individuals in reproductive age group is higher than the individuals in pre reproductive age group.

1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
4. Both assertion and reason are false.

Nematode specific genes were introduced into the tobacco host plant using a vector:

1. pBR 322.
2. Plasmid.
3. Bacteriophage.
4. Agrobacterium.

What is chromosomal disorder? Explain any two aneuploidy with characters in humans.###Mention any two autosomal genetic disorders with their symptoms.

Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow:
After implantation, finger-like projections appear on the trophoblast called chorionic villi which are surrounded by the uterine tissue and maternal blood. The chorionic villi and uterine tissue become interdigitated with each other and jointly form a structural and functional unit between the developing embryo (foetus) and the maternal body.

i. Name the hormone crucial in parturition. Does the parturition signal originate from the mother or the fetus?(1)
ii. When and where do chorionic villi appear in humans? (1)
iii. Woman has conceived and implantation has occurred. Discuss the impact of progesterone and estrogen. (2)
OR
Fetal ejection reflex leads to parturition. Justify (2)

Explain Predation as population interaction with different example.

Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:
In testis, the immature male germ cells produce sperms by spermatogenesis that begins at puberty. It occurs in the seminiferous tubules of the testes. Seminiferous tubules are lined by germinal epithelium. Study the schematic representation of spermatogenesis and answer the following questions.

1. Which cell division occurs during multiplication phase?

1. Mitosis.
2. Meiosis I.
3. Meiosis II.
4. Both (b) and (c).

2. How many chromosomes are present in secondary spermatocyte and spermatid, respectively?

1. 46, 23
2. 46, 46
3. 23, 23
4. 23, XY

3. Transformation of L into M is known as:

1. Spermiation.
2. Spermateliosis.
3. Spermatogenesis.
4. None of these.

4. Select the correct option.

1. Type A spermatogonia grows to larger primary spermatocyte.
2. One spermatogonium forms two spermatids.
3. Spenniation is the release of sperms from seminiferous tubules.
4. Primary spermatocyte undergoes mitosis to form secondary spermatocytes.

5. Which hormone acts on spermatogonia to stimulate sperm production?

1. LH.
2. GnRH.
3. ABP.
4. FSH.

Explain pBR322 with its cloning sites, enzymes with well labeled diagram.###Explain: cloning sites. (Diagram is not necessary)