Question
If $\text{ABCD}$ is a parallelogram, then prove that
$\text{ar}(\triangle\text{ABD})=\text{ar}(\triangle\text{BCD}) \ =\text{ar}(\triangle\text{ABC})=\text{ar}(\triangle\text{ACD})=\frac{1}{2}\text{ar} (\|^{ gm} \text{ABCD})$
$\text{ar}(\triangle\text{ABD})=\text{ar}(\triangle\text{BCD}) \ =\text{ar}(\triangle\text{ABC})=\text{ar}(\triangle\text{ACD})=\frac{1}{2}\text{ar} (\|^{ gm} \text{ABCD})$


