Question
If $\triangle=\begin{vmatrix}1&\text{x}&\text{x}^2\\1&\text{y}&\text{y}^2\\1&\text{z}&\text{z}^2\end{vmatrix},$ $\triangle_1=\begin{vmatrix}1&1&1\\\text{yz}&\text{zx}&\text{xy}\\\text{x}&\text{y}&\text{z}\end{vmatrix},$ then prove that $\triangle+\triangle_1=0$

Answer

$\triangle+\triangle_1=\begin{vmatrix}1&\text{x}&\text{x}^2\\1&\text{y}&\text{y}^2\\1&\text{z}&\text{z}^2\end{vmatrix}+\begin{vmatrix}1&1&1\\\text{yz}&\text{zx}&\text{xy}\\\text{x}&\text{y}&\text{z}\end{vmatrix}$
$=\begin{vmatrix}1&\text{x}&\text{x}^2\\1&\text{y}&\text{y}^2\\1&\text{z}&\text{z}^2\end{vmatrix}+\begin{vmatrix}1&\text{yz}&\text{x}\\1&\text{zx}&\text{y}\\1&\text{xy}&\text{z} \end{vmatrix}$
$[$Interchanging rows and coloumns in $\triangle_1]$
$=\begin{vmatrix}1&\text{x}&\text{x}^2\\1&\text{y}&\text{y}^2\\1&\text{z}&\text{z}^2\end{vmatrix}-\begin{vmatrix}1&\text{x}&\text{yz}\\1&\text{y}&\text{zx}\\1&\text{z}&\text{xy} \end{vmatrix}$
$[$Applying $\text{C}_2\leftrightarrow\text{C}_3$ in $\triangle_1]$
$=\begin{vmatrix}1&\text{x}&\text{x}^2\\0&\text{y}-\text{x}&\text{y}^2-\text{x}^2\\0&\text{z}-\text{x}&\text{z}^2-\text{x}^2\end{vmatrix}-\begin{vmatrix}1&\text{x}&\text{yz}\\0&\text{y}-\text{x}&\text{zx}-\text{yz}\\0&\text{z}-\text{x}&\text{xy}-\text{yz}\end{vmatrix}$
[Applying R2 → R2 - R1 and R3 → R3 - R1]
$=(\text{y}-\text{x})(\text{z}-\text{x})\begin{vmatrix}1&\text{x}&\text{x}^2\\0&1&\text{y}+\text{x}\\0&1&\text{z}+\text{x}\end{vmatrix}-(\text{y}-\text{x})(\text{z}-\text{x})\begin{vmatrix}1&\text{x}&\text{yz}\\0&1&-\text{z}\\0&1&-\text{y}\end{vmatrix}$
[Taking (y - x) common from R2 and (z - x) common from R3]
$=(\text{y}-\text{x})(\text{z}-\text{x})(\text{z}+\text{x}-\text{y}-\text{x})-(\text{y}-\text{x})(\text{z}-\text{x})(-\text{y}+\text{z})$
[Expanding along first column]
$=(\text{y}-\text{x})(\text{z}-\text{x})(\text{z}-\text{y})(1-1)$
$=0$
$\therefore\ \triangle+\triangle_1=0$

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