MCQ
$\lim _{n \rightarrow \infty}\left(1+\frac{1+\frac{1}{2}+\ldots \ldots .+\frac{1}{n}}{n^{2}}\right)^{n}$ is equal to
- A$\frac{1}{2}$
- B$0$
- C$\frac{1}{ e }$
- D$1$
$\text { So, } l=\exp \left(\lim _{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{1+\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}+\ldots \ldots .+\frac{1}{n}}{n}\right)$
Now,
$0 \leq 1+\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}+\ldots .+\frac{1}{n} \leq 1+\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}+\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}+\ldots+\frac{1}{\sqrt{n}}$
$\leq 2 \sqrt{n}-1$
So, $l=\exp (0)$ (from sandwich theorem)
$=1$
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