Question
Write a short note on pollination by wind.

Answer

Image
→ Pollination by wind is more common amongst abiotic pollinations.
→ Wind pollination also requires that the pollen grains are light and non-sticky so that they can be transported in wind currents.
→ They often possess well-exposed stamens so that the pollens are easily dispersed into wind currents, and large often-feathery stigma to easily trap air-borne pollen grains.
→ Wind pollinated flowers often have a single ovule in each ovary and numerous flowers packed into an inflorescence.
→ A familiar example is the corn cob the - tassels you see are nothing but the stigma and style which wave in the wind to trap pollen grains.
→ Wind-pollination is quite common in grasses.

Need a full question paper?

Generate a complete, print-ready paper with questions like this in minutes — across 16+ boards, with answer keys.

Start Generating Free

Similar questions

Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:

Tools used in the formation of recombinant DNA are of three types. These are enzymes, cloning vectors and competent host. lysing enzymes are used to extract DNA for experimental purpose from the cells. Cleaving enzymes break the DNA molecules. TI1ey are of three types : exonucleases, endonucleases and restriction endonucleases. A competent host is required for transformation with recombinant DNA and cloning vectors help to propagate DNA.

  1. Which of the following is an example of natural Iysing activity in a human body?
  1. Lysozyme present in tears dissolve the bacterial cell wall.
  2. Conversion of starch to maltose in the buccal cavity
  3. Absorption of digested food into the intestinal cells.
  4. Conversion of protein molecules into amino acids in the stomach.
  1. Which of the following depicts exonuclease activity?
  1.  

  1.  

  1.  

 

  1. All of these
  1. Cloning vectors are the DNA molecules that.
  1. Carry foreign DNA segment but do not replicate inside the host cell.
  2. Carry foreign DNA segment and replicate inside the host cell.
  3. Transfer nuclear DNA form nucleus to the cytoplasm of the same cells.
  4. Help in sealing gaps in DNA segments.
  1. Transfer of DNA into a eucaryotic cell is called:
  1. Transformation.
  2. Transduction.
  3. Transfection.
  4. Electroporation.
  1. Assertion: Type I restriction enzymes are not used in rDNA technology.

Reason: Biotechnology mostly involves cutting and pasting of desired DNA fragments.

  1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
  2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
  3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
  4. Both assertion and reason are false.
Explain: separation and isolation of DNA fragments.###How will you make separation and isolation of DNA fragments by using gel electrophoresis?
Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow:
The reproductive cycle in female primates (e.g. monkeys, apes and human beings) is called the menstrual cycle. In human females, menstruation is repeated at an average interval of about 28/29 days, and the cycle of events starting from one menstruation till the next one is called the menstrual cycle Anita has show Diagrammatic presentation of various events during a menstrual cycle.
Image
i. What role do pituitary gonadotropins play during the follicular and ovulatory phases of the menstrual cycle? (1)
ii. The first half of the menstrual cycle is called the proliferative phase as well as the follicular phase. Give reason.(2)
iii. Why does corpus luteum stay active throughout pregnancy and in the absence of fertilization, is active only for 10-12 days?
OR
What happens to corpus luteum in human female if the ovum is (2)
a. fertilised,
b. not fertilised?
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:

Growth of a population with time shows specific and predictable patterns. Two types of growth pattern of population are exponential and logistic growth. When resources in the habitat are unlimited each species has the ability to realise fully its innate potential to grow in number. Then the population grows in exponential fashion. When the resources are limited growth curve shows an initial slow rate and then it accelerates and finally slows giving the growth curve which is sigmoid.

  1. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
  1. Exponential growth occurs in organism such as lemmings.
  2. Logistic growth is more realistic.
  3. Exponential growth has two phases lag and log.
  4. ln logistic growth, population passes well beyond the carrying capacity of ecosystem.
  1. Which of the following equations correctly represents the exponential population growth curve?
  1. $\text{dN}/\text{dt}=\text{rN}$

  2. $\text{dN}/\text{dt}=\text{rN}\Big(\frac{\text{K-N}}{\text{K}}\Big)$

  3. $\text{N}_\text{t}=\text{N}_\text{o}\text{e}^\text{rt}$

  4. Both (a) and (c).
  1. Which of the following equations correctly represents Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth?
  1. $\text{dN}/\text{dt}=\text{rN}\Big(\frac{\text{K-N}}{\text{K}}\Big)$

  2. $\text{dN}/\text{dt}=\frac{\text{rN}}{\text{K}}$

  3. $\text{dN}/\text{dt}=\frac{\text{N}(\text{K}-\text{N})}{\text{K}}$

  4. $\text{dN}/\text{dt}=\frac{\text{r}(\text{K}-\text{N})}{\text{K}}$

  1. The population growth is generally described by the following equation:

$\frac{\text{dN}}{\text{dt}}=\text{rN}\Big(\frac{\text{K}-\text{N}}{\text{K}}\Big)$

What does 'r' represent in the given equation?

  1. Population density at time 't'.
  2. Intrinsic rate of natural increase.
  3. Carrying capacity.
  4. The base of natural logarithm.
  1. Study the population growth curves (A and B) in the given graph and select the incorrect option.

  1. Curve 'A: shows exponential growth, represented by equation $\frac{\text{dN}}{\text{dt}}=\text{rN}$.

  2. Curve 'B' shows logistic growth, represented by equation $\frac{\text{dN}}{\text{dt}}=\text{rN}\Big(\frac{\text{K}-\text{N}}{\text{K}}\Big)$

  3. Exponential growth curve is considered as more realistic than the logistic growth curve.
  4. Curve 'A' can also be represented by equation $\text{N}_\text{t}=\text{N}_\text{o}\text{e}^\text{rt}$.

Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:

Pollen-pistil interaction is the group of events that occur from the time of pollen deposition over the stigma to the time of pollen tube entry into ovule. It is a dynamic process which has checks at several places for promotion or inhibition of pollen growth. Pollen-pistil interaction is a safety measure to ensure that illegitimate crossings do not occur. Compatibility and incompatibility of the pollen-pistil is determined by special proteins. The compatible pollens are able to absorb water and nutrients from the surface of the stigma. They germinate and produce pollen tubes. Pollen tubes grow into the style. Their growth and path through the style are also determined by specific chemicals.

  1. Which of the following parts of gynoecium determines the compatible nature of pollen?
  1. Stigma.
  2. Style.
  3. Ovary.
  4. Thalamus.
  1. In Triforium, which type of self-incompatibility is found?
  1. Gametophytic self-incompatibility (GSI).
  2. Sporophytic self-incompatibility (SSI).
  3.  Both GSI and SSI.
  4. None of these.
  1. Select the incorrect statement.
  1. In Asteraceae, incompatibility is due to the genotype of the sporophytic stigmatic tissues.
  2. In members of Brassicaceae, incompatibility is due to the genotype of the pollen.
  3. Nature has imposed self-incompatibility to avoid highly homozygous individuals, which have a very low survival value.
  4. None of these.
  1. Which of the following are examples of self incompatibility?
  1. Tobacco.
  2. Potato.
  3. Crucifers.
  4. All of these.
  1. Given figures show the pollen-stigma interaction, where pollen wall proteins are released onto the pellicle of stigmatic papillae, where a recognition reaction occurs.

Which of the following statements drawn from given figures is incorrect?

  1. P indicates compatible reaction in which the pollen tube penetrates the cuticle and grows down the papilla.
  2. Development of callose plug between the plasma membrane and pectocellulosic layer of stigmatic papillae results in the incompatibility reaction in Q.
  3. A callose plug, which appears at the tip of pollen in Q, is dissolved by callase enzyme secreted by stigma resulting in compatibility reaction.
  4. Deposition of callose can be employed as a reliable bioassay to detect compatibility or incompatibility reactions of pollen and stigma.
Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Malaria and dengue fever are major mosquito-borne public health problems in tropical countries. The authors report a malaria and dengue co-infection in an 11-year-old boy who presented with sustained fever for 10 days. The physical examination revealed a flushed face, injected conjunctivae and left submandibular lymphadenopathy. His peripheral blood smear showed few ring-form trophozoites of Plasmodium falciparum. His blood tests were positive for dengue NS-1 antigen and IgM antibody, and negative for IgG antibody. After the initiation of antimalarial treatment with artesunate and mefloquine, his clinical condition gradually improved. However, he still had low-grade fever that persisted for 6 days. Finally, he recovered well without fluid leakage, shock or severe bleeding.
i. Name the fish that help in eradication of mosquito larvae.
ii. What is the reason of symptoms of malaria?
iii. Name the body parts and host in which following events takes place in life cycle of plasmodium.
a. asexual reproduction
b. sexual reproduction.
OR
Name some vector borne diseases and their vector.
With labeled diagrams describe the mechanism of Pollen-pistil Interaction.
Explain Competition as a population Interaction with suitable examples.
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:

Cleavage is the series of rapid mitotic divisions in zygote and forms blastula. The 2, 4, 8, 16 daughter cells are called blastomeres. Embryo with 64 blastomeres is known as blastocyst and has blastocoel cavity. Blastocyst gets implanted in uterine wall and leads to pregnancy.

  1. Solid mass of cells with 16 blastomeres is called:
  1. Morula.
  2. Blastula.
  3. Gastrula.
  4. Zygote.
  1. At which stage of embryonic development, trophoectoderm develops?
  1. Zygote.
  2. Morula.
  3. Blastula.
  4. Gastrula.
  1. Site of implantation is:
  1. Endometrium of uterus.
  2. Cervix.
  3. Uterine fundus.
  4. Infundibulum of oviduct.
  1. Correct sequence of various structures formed during embryonic development is:
  1. Morula → Embryo → Gastrula → Blastula.
  2. Zygote → Embryo → Morula → Blastula.
  3. Blastula → Morula → Gastrula → Embryo.
  4. Zygote → Morula → Blastula → Gastrula.
  1. Assertion: Side of blastocyst with inner cell mass is called animal pole.

Reason: Inner cell mass gives rise to embryo.

  1. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
  2. Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
  3. Assertion is true, but reason is false.
  4. Both assertion and reason are false.
Bacteria cannot be seen with the naked eyes, but these can be seen with the help of a microscope. If you have to carry a sample from your home to your biology laboratory to demonstrate the presence of microbes with the help of a microscope, which sample would you carry and why?